why use pi^2/3 replace of error variance 1 in binomial analysis?

From: luansheng <luansheng_at_GMAIL.COM>
Date: Tue, 31 Mar 2009 16:41:02 +0800

In the p333 of asreml 3 user guide, it is about an analysis of footrot as a
binomial variable using the logistic link. In this example, using pi^2/3
replace of error variance 1. I don't know the reason, anyone tell me?

Luan sheng
  Yellow Sea Fisheries Research Institute
  Chinese Academy of Fisheries Sciences
  Nanjing Road 106
  Qingdao 266071
Received on Wed Mar 31 2009 - 16:41:02 EST

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